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CAT MBA Entrance Exam Online Mock Test

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CAT Sample paper contains 60 questions from Verbal/English Ability, Quant/Maths Ability, Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning.

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Question 1
What is the minimum value of the sum of the squares of the roots of the equation equation, where α is a positive number?
A
0
B
2
C
5
D
cannot be determined
Question 2
For how many of the companies given above, is the market value per share greater than Rs.500 but less than Rs.1,000?
A
4
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 3
When 952 divides a number, the remainder left is 124. Find the remainder left if 68 divides the same number.
A
14
B
26
C
40
D
56
Question 4

Related: Average (Reasoning) Practice Questions

Each of four girls, A, B, C and D, had a few chocolates with her. A first gave 1/3rd of the chocolates with her to B, B gave 1/4th of what she then had to C and C gave 1/5th of what she then had to D. Finally, all the four girls had an equal number of chocolates. If A had 80 chocolates more than B initially, find the difference between the number of chocolates that C and D initially had.
A
20
B
30
C
15
D
Cannot be determined
Question 5
There are twenty-five identical marbles to be divided among four brothers such that each of them gets no less than three marbles. In how many ways can the marbles be divided among the four brothers?
A
286
B
364
C
455
D
560
Question 6
How many of these triplets are such that the sum of the numbers is divisible by 3?
A
37
B
42
C
36
D
48
Question 7
The graph below gives a function f(x), represented by thickened line segments. From among the choices given, choose the function that best describes f(x).

graph

A
f(x) = -f(-x)
B
f(x) = f(-x)
C
f(x) = f(-x) + 2
D
f(x) = 1 - f(-x)
Question 8
Several identical cuboids of dimensions 4 cm × 3 cm × 2cm are put together to form a large cube. What is the least possible volume (in cu.cm) of such a cube?
A
216
B
1728
C
5832
D
13824
Question 9
Three filling pipes R, S and T together, can fill an empty tank in 2 hours, S can fill the tank four times faster than T. Initially R alone is opened and after x hours, it is closed and immediately S and T are opened together. The tank is full after another y hours. If the tank was filled in a total of 4 hours, and x ≠ y, find the time (in hours) that T alone would take to fill the tank.
A
6
B
12
C
20
D
24
Question 10
The number N, expressed to the base five is 2323……23 upto a total of hundred digits. The remainder when N4231 is divided by 4 is
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
4
Question 11
A number written to the base five is called an oven number, if it is exactly divisible by 3. Which of the following is not an oven number?
A
(4213)2143
B
(1423)2143
C
(1243)2143
D
(3421)2143
Question 12
If a four-digit natural number is 7083 more than the number formed by reversing the order of its digits, then how many such natural numbers are possible?

Related: Alphabet Classification (English Practice Test)

A
18
B
24
C
27
D
36
Question 13
A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A
120 metres
B
180 metres
C
324 metres
D
150 metres
Question 14
A man buys Rs. 20 shares paying 9% dividend. The man wants to have an interest of 12% on his money. The market value of each share is:
A
Rs. 12
B
Rs. 15
C
Rs. 18
D
Rs. 21
Question 15

Direction :The following pie chart gives the information about the distribution of weight in the human body according to different kinds of components. Study the pie charts and answer the question.

Distribution of Weight in Human Body

pie chart 1

What percentage of proteins of the human body is equivalent to the weight of its skin ?

A
41.66 %
B
43.33 %
C
44.44 %
D
Cannot be determined
Question 16
How much of the human body is neither made of bones or skin ?
A
40 %
B
50 %
C
60 %
D
70 %
Question 17
What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the muscles to that of the distribution of proteins in the bones?
A
2 : 1
B
2 : 3
C
3 : 2
D
cannot be determined
Question 18
From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?
A
564
B
645
C
735
D
756
Question 19
Given that 100.48 = x, 100.70 = y and xz = yz, then the value of z is close to:
A
1.45
B
1.88
C
2.9
D
3.7
Question 20

Direction : The following line graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who qualified an examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a period of seven years from 1994 to 2000.

Percentage of Candidates Qualified to Appeared in an Examination Over the Years.

graph 2

The difference between the percentage of candidates qualified to appeared was maximum in which of the following pairs of years?

A
1994 and 1995
B
1997 and 1998
C
1998 and 1999
D
1999 and 2000
Question 21
In which pair of years was the number of candidates qualified the same?
A
1995 and 1997
B
1995 and 2000
C
1998 and 1999
D
Data inadequate
Question 22
If the number of candidates qualified in 1998 was 21200, what was the number of candidates appeared in 1998?
A
32000
B
28500
C
26500
D
25000
Question 23
If the total number of candidates appeared in 1996 and 1997 together was 47400, then the total number of candidates qualified in these two years together was?
A
34700
B
32100
C
31500
D
Data inadequate
Question 24
The total number of candidates qualified in 1999 and 2000 together was 33500 and the number of candidates appeared in 1999 was 26500. What was the number of candidates in 2000?
A
24500
B
22000
C
20500
D
19000
Question 25
From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

Related: 100+ Common Business Acronyms, Abbreviations

A
564
B
645
C
735
D
756
Question 26
A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.
A
Rs. 1900
B
Rs. 2660
C
Rs. 2800
D
Rs. 2840
Question 27
Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:
A
Rs. 169.50
B
Rs. 170
C
Rs. 175.50
D
Rs. 180
Question 28
In a 100 m race, A can give B 10 m and C 28 m. In the same race B can give C:
A
18 m
B
20 m
C
27 m
D
9 m
Question 29
Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:
A
1 : 3
B
3 : 2
C
3 : 4
D
None of these
Question 30
Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?
A
(1/3)
B
(1/8)
C
(2/8)
D
(1/16)
Question 31
People speculate when they consider a situation and assume something to be true based on inconclusive evidence. Which situation below is the best example of Speculation ?
A
Francine decides that it would be appropriate to wear jeans to her new office on   Friday after reading about "Casual Fridays" in her employee handbook.
B
Mary spends thirty minutes sitting in traffic and wishes that she took the train instead of driving.
C
After consulting several guidebooks and her travel agent, Jennifer feels confident that the hotel she has chosen is first-rate.
D
When Emily opens the door in tears, Theo guesses that she's had a death in her family.
Question 32
  • Tanya is older than Eric.
  • Cliff is older than Tanya.
  • Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
true
B
false
Question 33
Choose the word that is a necessary part of “Antique”.
A
rarity
B
artifact
C
aged
D
prehistoric
Question 34

Direction : In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered (1) and (2) You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type. Courses of Action:
  1. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X.
  2. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.
A
only 1 follows
B
only 2 follows
C
either 1 or 2 follows
D
neither 1 nor 2 follows
E
both 1 and 2 follow
Question 35
Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of the country. Courses of Action:
  1. Government should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to those affected.
  2. Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these areas to save the people and cattle.
A
only 1 follows
B
only 2 follows
C
either 1 or 2 follows
D
neither 1 nor 2 follows
E
both 1 and 2 follow
Question 36

Direction : Read the paragraph carefully and determine the main point the author is trying to make. What conclusion can be drawn from the argument? Each paragraph is followed by four statements. One statement supports the author's argument better than the others do.

One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing even today.

This paragraph best supports the statement that

A
Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today
B
people even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters
C
academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work
D
New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare.
Question 37
In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice cream. But that isn't the case today. An increasing health consciousness combined with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream store owners.

This paragraph best supports the statement that

A
low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods
B
ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream
C
ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item
D
low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream
Question 38
The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent and linked by a common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts to the attainment of organisational objectives as means of achieving these personal goals.

The passage best supports the statement that motivation:

A
encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational goals
B
is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation
C
is the product of an individual's physical and mental energy
D
is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts
Question 39
Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very large, yet fashions have come to stay. They will not go, come what may. However, what is now required is that strong efforts should be made to displace the excessive craze for fashion from the minds of these youngsters.

The passage best supports the statement that:

A
fashion is the need of the day
B
the excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one's personality
C
the hoard for fashion should be done away with so as not to let down the constructive development
D
work and other activities should be valued more than the outward appearance
Question 40
Direction : Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'd'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Related: Series Completion Test 1

A
We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B
on the eve of the examination
C
that I found it very easy to work it out
D
No error
Question 41
Word which best expresses the meaning of CORPULENT?
A
Lean
B
Gaunt
C
Emaciated
D
Obese
Question 42
Word which best expresses the meaning of STRINGENT?
A
Dry
B
Strained
C
Rigorous
D
Shrill
Question 43
Word which is the exact opposite of EXODUS?

Related: Opposite meaning of words (Antonyms)

A
Influx
B
Home-coming
C
Return
D
Restoration
Question 44
Word which is the exact opposite of LOQUACIOUS?
A
Reticent
B
Talkative
C
Garrulous
D
Verbose
Question 45
A sanguine outlook is associated with the ......
A
rationalist
B
socialist
C
philanthropist
D
optimist
Question 46
It being an ...... issue, it is not correct to introduce questions of morality in to the debate.
A
moral
B
immoral
C
amoral
D
irrelevant
Question 47
Direction : Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

DIVA : OPERA

A
producer : theatre
B
director : drama
C
conductor : bus
D
thespian : play
Question 48
PAIN : SEDATIVE
A
comfort : stimulant
B
grief : consolation
C
trance : narcotic
D
ache : extraction
Question 49
Direction : Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.

To make clean breast of

A
To gain prominence
B
To praise oneself
C
To confess without of reserve
D
To destroy before it blooms
Question 50
To leave someone in the lurch
A
To come to compromise with someone
B
Constant source of annoyance to someone
C
To put someone at ease
D
To desert someone in his difficulties
Question 51
A person who insists on something. choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
A
Disciplinarian
B
Stickler
C
Instantaneous
D
Boaster
Question 52

At this stage of civilisation, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.

Answer below questions on the bases of this paragraph.

According to the author of 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly product of its

A
history
B
international position
C
politics
D
present character
Question 53
The need for a greater understanding between nations

Related: Simple Interest and Compound Interest Question Bank

A
was always there
B
is no longer there
C
is more today than ever before
D
will always be there
Question 54
Englishmen like others to react to political situations like
A
us
B
themselves
C
others
D
each others
Question 55
Direction : In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

S1: In 1934, William Golding published a small volume of poems.

P : During the World War II(1939-45) he joined the Royal Navy and was present at the sinking of the Bismarck.

Q : He returned to teaching in 1945 and gave it up in 1962, and is now a full time writer.

R : In 1939, he married and started teaching at Vishop Wordsworth school in Salisbury.

S : At first his novels were not accepted.

S6: But the Lord of the files which came out in 1954 was welcomed as "a most absorbing and instructive tale".

The Proper sequence should be:

A
RPQS
B
RPSQ
C
SRPQ
D
SQPR
Question 56

S1 : While talking to a group, one should feel self-confident and courageous.

P : Nor is it a gift bestowed by providence on only a few.

Q : One should also learn how to think calmly and clearly.

R : It is like the ability to play golf.

S : It is not as difficult as most men imagine.

S6 : Any man can develop his capacity if he has the desire to do so.

The Proper sequence should be:

A
SQPR
B
QSPR
C
QRSP
D
RSQP
Question 57
Direction : In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

I felt somewhat more relaxed ......

A
but tense as compared to earlier
B
and tense as compared to earlier
C
as there was already no tension at all
D
and tension-free as compared to earlier
Question 58

Direction : Answer the questions based on the following information.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B, “You are as sold as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was  when he was as old as C is now.” B said to A, “ You may be older than F.” but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.”

Who is the eldest brother ?

A
A
B
E
C
C
D
Cannot be determined
Question 59
Who is the youngest brother ?
A
B
B
D
C
F
D
Cannot be determined
Question 60
Which two are probably twins ?

Related: Data Interpretation Sample Paper

A
D and G
B
E and C
C
A and B
D
Cannot be determined
Question 61
Which of the following is false ?G has four elder brothers
A
G has four elder brothers
B
A is older than G but younger than E
C
B has three elder brothers
D
There is a pair of twins among the brothers
Question 62

Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.

Sixteen teams have been invited to participate in the ABC Gold Cup cricket tournament. The tournament was conducted in two stages.  In the first stage, the teams are divided into two groups. Each group consists of   eight teams, with each team playing every other team in its group exactly once. At the end of the first stage, the top four teams from each group advance to the second state while the rest are eliminated. The second stage comprised several rounds. A round involves one match for each team the winner of a match in a round advances to the next term, while the loser is eliminated. The team that remains undefeated in the second stage is declared the winner and claims the Gold Cup.

The tournament rules are such that each match results in a winner and a loser with no possibility of a tie. In the first stage, a team earns one point for each win and no points for a loss. At the end of the first stage, teams in each group are ranked on the basis of total points to determine the qualifiers advancing to the next stage. Ties are resolved by a series of complex tie breaking rules so that exactly four teams from each group advance to the next stage.

What is the total number of matches played in the tournament?

A
28
B
55
C
63
D
35
Question 63
The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to guarantee its advancement to the next stage is:
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
4
Question 64
What is the highest number of wins for a team in the first stage inspite of which it would be eliminated at the end of first stage?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 65
What is the number of rounds in the second stage of the tournament?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 66
Which of the following statements is true?
A
The winner will have more wins than any other team in the tournament.
B
At the end of the first stage, no team eliminated from the tournament will have more wins than any of the teams qualifying of the first stage.
C
It is possible that the winner will have the same number of wins in the entire tournament as a team eliminated at the end of the first stage.
D
The number of teams with exactly one win in the second stage of the tournament is 4.
Question 67

Direction : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A string of three English letters is formed as per the following rules :

  1. The first letter is any vowel.
  2. The Second letter is in, n or p.
  3. If the second letter is in then the third letter is an u vowel which is different from the first letter.
  4. If  the second letter is n them the third letter is e or u.
  5. the second letter is p  then the third letter is the same as the first letter.
How many stings of letters on possibly be formed using the above rules?
A
40
B
45
C
30
D
35
Question 68
How many  strings of letters can possibly be formed using the above rules such that  the  third letter of string is e ?
A
8
B
9
C
10
D
11
Question 69
There  are 12 town grouped int four zones with three towns per zone. It is intended to connect the  towns with telephone lines such  that every two  towns are connect  with three direct lines if they belong to the same  zone, and  with only one direct line otherwise.  How many  direct telephone lines are  required ?
A
72
B
90
C
96
D
144
Question 70

Which is the odd one out?

auburn, chestnut, walnut, carmine, hazel

A
chestnut
B
carmine
C
hazel
D
auburn
Question 71
Which two words are most opposite in meaning?

Related: MBA Entrance Exam Practice Papers

A
recant, evoke
B
maintain, dissent
C
dissent, stand
D
recant, maintain
Question 72

Which word in brackets is most similar in meaning to the word in capitals?

TENABLE

A
believable
B
alluring
C
steadfast
D
speculative
Question 73
Direction : Each question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the prceding two statements.

Example:

A. All the cigarettes are hazardous to health.

B. Brand X is a cigarette.

C. Brand X is a hazardous to health.

ABC is a valid option, where statement C can be concluded from statements A and B.

A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.

B. Tara Tech employs knowledge workers.

C. Tara Tech is a software company.

D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.

E . Tara Tech employs only knowledge workers.

A
ABC
B
ACB
C
CDB
D
ACE
Question 74

A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment.

B. Increase in carbon  monoxide  is hazardous to health.

C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health.

D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increased carbon monoxide.

E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health.

A
CBA
B
BDE
C
CDA
D
BAC
Question 75

A. Apples are not sweet.

B. Some apples are sweet.

C. All sweets are tasty.

D. Some apples are not tasty.

E. No apple is tasty.

A
CEA
B
BDC
C
CBD
D
EAC
Question 76

A. Some towns in India are polluted.

B. All polluted towns should be destroyed.

C. Town Meghana should be destroyed.

D. Town Meghana is polluted.

E. Some towns in India should be destroyed.

A
BDE
B
BAE
C
ADE
D
CDB
Question 77

A. No patriot is a criminal.

B. Bundledas  is not a criminal.

C. Bundledas is a patriot.

D. Bogusdas is not a patriot.

E. Bogausdas is a criminal.

A
ACB
B
ABC
C
ADE
D
ABE
Question 78

A. Ant eaters like ants.

B. Boys are anteaters.

C. Balaram is an anteater.

D. Balaram likes ants.

E . Balaram may eat ants.

A
DCA
B
ADC
C
ABE
D
ACD
Question 79

A. All actors are handsome

B. Some actors are popular.

C. Ram is handsome.

D. Ram is a popular actor.

E. Some popular people are handsome.

A
ACD
B
ABE
C
DCA
D
EDC
Question 80

A. Modern industry is technology-driven.

B. BTI is a modern industry.

C. BTI is technology-driven.

D. BTI may be technoloy-driven.

E. Technology driven industry is moder.

A
ABC
B
ABS
C
BCA
D
EBC
Question 81

A. All Golmal islanders are blue-coloured people.

B. Some smart people are not blue-coloured people.

C. Some babies are blue-coloured.

D. Some babies are smart.

E . Some smart people are not Golman islanders

A
BCD
B
BE
C
CBD
D
None of these
Question 82

A. MBAs are in great demand.

B. Ram and Sita are in great demand.

C. Ram is in great demand.

D. Sita is in great demand.

E. Ram and Sita are MBAs.

A
ABE
B
ECD
C
AEB
D
EBA
Question 83
Which is odd among these? figure question
A
1
B
5
C
12
D
15
Question 84
A milkman mixes 20 litres of water with 80 litres of milk. After selling one fourth of this mixture, he adds water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of water to milk?

Related: Quantitative Aptitude Question Bank

A
2 : 3
B
1 : 2
C
1 : 3
D
3 : 4
Question 85
Let f(x) = ax2- b |x|, where a and bare constants. Then at x = 0, f(x} is
A
maximised whenever a > 0, b > 0
B
maximised whenever a > 0, b < 0
C
minimised whenever a > 0, b > 0
D
minimised whenever a > 0, b < 0
Question 86
If f (x) = x3 -4x + p, and f(0) and f(l) are of opposite signs, then which of the following is necessarily true?
A
-1 < p < 2
B
0 < p < 3
C
–2 < p < 1
D
-3 < p < 0
Question 87
N persons stand on the circumference of a circle at distinct points. Each possible pair of persons, not standing next to each other, sings a two-minute song one pair after the other. If the total time taken for singing is 28 minutes, what is N?
A
5
B
7
C
9
D
None of the above
Question 88
Direction : Answer the question on the basis of the following information.

Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday we got the following responses:

ICI came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me.

JP when I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting there.  There was someone else, but I cannot remember who it was.

SM I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC,SS and DG in the lounge on that day.

SSI left immediately after SM left.

DG I met JC, SS, JP during my first visit to the lounge. I went back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there.

PK I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there.

VR No comments.

Based on the responses, which of the teo JP or DG,  entered the lounge first ?

A
JP
B
DG
C
Both entered together
D
Cannot be deduced
Question 89
Who was sitting with JC when JP entered the lounge ?
A
SS
B
SM
C
DG
D
PK
Question 90
How many of the seven  members did VR meet on /Friday in the  lounge ?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 91
Directions: Each of  the questions contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. You have to choose  that set in which the statements are logically related.

Related: Colleges that accepts CAT Scores

A. Some bubbles are not dubbles.

B. Some dubbles are not bubbles.

C. None who is rubbles is dubbels.

D. All dubbles are rubbles.

E . Some dubbles are bubbles.

F. Some who are rubbles are not bubbles.

A
ACF
B
DEF
C
ABC
D
BDF
Question 92

A. some men are bad.

B. All men are sad.

C. All bad things are men.

D. All bad things are sad.

E. Some sad things are men.

F. Some sad things are bad.

A
AFE
B
BCF
C
BDA
D
BCE
Question 93

A. All Toms are bright.

B. No bright Toms are Dicks.

C. Some Toms are Dicks.

D. Some Dicks are bright.

E . No Tom is a Dick.

F. No Dick is a Tom.

A
ABC
B
BEF
C
ABF
D
CDA
Question 94

A. All witches are nasty.

B. Some  devils are nasty.

C. All witches are devils.

D. All devils are nasty.

E. Some nasty are devils.

F. No which is nasty.

A
BCD
B
CDA
C
DEC
D
FEC
Question 95

A. No  tingo is a  bingo.

B. All jingoes are bingoes.

C. No jingo is a tingo.

D. Some jingoes are not tingoes.

E. Some tingoes are jingoes.

F. Some bingoes are not tingoes.

A
ABC
B
ACB
C
DFA
D
BDA
There are 95 questions to complete.
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Vishal Arora

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