CLAT PG Legal Law Aptitude Practice questions:

Question: The principle of absolute liability has been laid down in which one of the following legislations?
(a) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(d) National Environment Appellate Authority Act, 1997
Ans. (a)

Question: At a joint sitting of Parliament, who presides?
(a) President of India
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Vice-President of India
Ans. (c)

Question: Which of the following statements, regarding the nature and character of protection provided by Article 31B of the Constitution of India, to the laws added to the IX Schedule, is incorrect?
(a) Even though an Act is put in the IX Schedule by a constitutional amendment, its provisions would be open to attack on the ground that they destroy or damage the basic structure of the Constitution.
(b) Amendments to the Constitution and additions made to the IX Schedule before April 24,1973 are valid and constitutional.
(c) Article 31-B validates a law on the basis of fictional immunity.
(d) Article 31-B confers a blanket protection on the laws included in the IX Schedule by constitutional amendments.
Ans. (d)

Question: In-camera trial refers to –
(a) Trial before open Court
(b) Trial broadcast via television networks
(c) Trial to which the public and press are not admitted
(d) Summary trial
Ans. (c)

Question: Which provision of the Constitution of India confers exclusive power on the Parliament to make law for prescribing punishments for acts declared to be offences under Part III?
(a) Article 13
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 33
(d) Article 35
Ans. (d)

Question: Which of the following is not a characteristic which may bring a body within the ambit of ‘State’ within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India –
(a) Deep and pervasive State control.
(b) Functions of public importance.
(c) Profit earning motive.
(d) Monopoly
Ans. (c)

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Question: Which of the following does not constitute grievous hurt?
(a) Permanent disfiguration face
(b) Dislocation of a tooth
(c) Permanent privation of the sight in eye
(d) Bodily pain
Ans. (d)

Question: The power of the Union to legislate is derived from –
(a) Article 246 of the Constitution of India
(b) List I of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India
(c) List III of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India
(d) Article 244 of the Constitution of India
Ans. (a)

Question: Which of the following statements regarding Section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is/are correct?
(a) It confers the Court with a power to summon material witness or examine persons present.
(b) It gives a discretion to the Court to examine the witness at any stage.
(c) It compels the Court to examine a witness if his evidence appears to be essential.
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (d)

Question: The rights given under clauses (a) and (b) of Article 22 of the Constitution of India are not available to –
(a) a person arrested for the offence of rape
(b) an alien enemy
(c) a person detained under preventive detention law
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)

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Question: Which of the following correctly describes the nature of a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution of India?
(a) The technicalities of res judicata are irrelevant while dealing with fundamental rights under Article 32 of the Constitution
(b) A person aggrieved by the decision of a High Court in a writ petition Article 226 may approach the Supreme Court on the same facts, under Article 32 of the Constitution in every case.
(c) An original petition for writ under Article 32 cannot take the place of an appeal against the order passed by a High Court in a petition under Article 226.
(d) All of the above are correct.
Ans. (c)

Question: Which of the following may be applied as a test of ‘grave and sudden provocation’ as envisaged by the exception to Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Whether a reasonable man belonging to the same class of society as the accused, placed in the situation in which the accused was placed would be so provoked as to lose his self control.
(b) Whether the accused was placed in a situation where he lost his cognitive faculties which rendered him incapable of understanding consequences of his actions.
(c) Whether the victim provoked the accused despite having a prior knowledge that the accused was a short tempered person.
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

Question: ‘Anmol’ entered into a written contract with ‘Shivam’ for purchase of goods. ‘Shivam’ failed to supply the goods despite having received the consideration for the same. ‘Anmol’ filed a suit for specific performance against ‘Shivam’ before the District Judge, Delhi. ‘Shivam’, however, challenged the jurisdiction of the Court, drawing attention to a term of the contract which stated that any disputes arising out of the contract shall be subject to the jurisdiction of Haryana courts only.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) The said term is generally valid and binding on both the parties, if they have explicitly agreed to ouster the jurisdiction of other Courts.
(b) The said term is invalid being a term in restraint of legal proceedings and therefore contrary to Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(c) The said term is invalid since the parties cannot narrow the jurisdiction of a competent court by a mutual agreement.
(d) The said term may be valid and binding on both the parties only if the contract has been entered into at Haryana.
Ans. (a)

Question: The printing of scurrilous matter is an offence. For this purpose, scurrilous matter does not include –
(a) any matter injurious to morality
(b) calculated to injure any person
(c) to express in good faith anything respecting the conduct of a public servant in discharge of his public functions
(d) to express anything respecting the conduct of a public servant in discharge of his public functions
Ans. (c)

Question: The purpose of death penalty as punishment is-
(a) to reform the society
(b) to take revenge and deter others from committing heinous crimes
(c) not to over-crowd prisons
(d) to create fear in the minds of criminals
Ans. (b)

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Question: What is common to the criteria of the existence of a legal system propounded by Austin and Kelsen?
(a) Existence of a sovereign
(b) Personal obedience to the sovereign
(c) Obedience to the laws
(d) Efficacy of a legal system
Ans. (d)

Question: A second marriage of a married Hindu man contracted after his conversion to Muslim faith is –
(a) valid
(b) void
(c) voidable
(d) irregular
Ans. (b)

Question: Which of the following objections have been raised against Savigny’s idea of Volkgeist?
(a) It attempted to transplant nearly thousand years old Roman law in the alien climate of Europe
(b) All laws would be directed only to officials and would be too complex to identify or handle
(c) Classification of rights and duties do not indicate the existence of any internal structure
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

Question: Priya, Zafar and Lalit are under a joint promise to pay Divya a sum of Rs. 3000/-. Priya and Zafar being only sureties for Lalit who fails to pay. Priya and Zafar are compelled to pay the whole amount. Which is the correct answer?
(a) Priya and Zafar are entitled to recover from Lalit
(b) Priya and Zafar are not entitled to recover from Lalit
(c) Divya must recover the amount from Lalit and pay to Priya and Zafar
(d) None of the above answers is correct.
Ans. (a)

Question: The marriage of a 15 year old girl with a 60 year old man solemnized without her consent but with the consent of her parents under the Hindu Marriage Act,1955 is –
(a) valid
(b) void
(c) voidable at the option of the girl
(d) voidable at the option of the man
Ans. (c)

Question: Dias describes power, coupled with a duty to exercise it, as –
(a) Discretionary power
(b) Administrative power
(c) Ministerial power
(d) Rightful power
Ans. (c)

Question: The effect of novation, rescission and alteration of contract is provided under-
(a) Section 59 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
(b) Section 24 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
(c) Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
(d) Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
Ans. (c)

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Question: Where only one of the parties to the marriage is a Christian –
(a) the marriage can be solemnized validly only under the Christian Marriage Act, 1872
(b) the marriage can be solemnized validly only under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(c) the marriage can be solemnized validly only where the non-Christian party converts to Christianity
(d) the marriage can be solemnized validly both under the Christian Marriage Act, 1872 as well as the Special Marriage Act, 1954
Ans. (d)

Question: Who defined law as a ‘species of will, other-regarding, self-authoritative, and inviolable?
(a) Stammler
(b) Rawls
(c) Hall
(d) Bentham
Ans. (a)

Question: Whoever causes death of a person by rash or negligent act not amounting to murder is liable to be punished with –
(a) imprisonment extending up to three years
(b) with fine
(c) with imprisonment extending to two years and fine
(d) with imprisonment extending to two years or fine or both
Ans. (d)